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riskreturn4One of the first things you teach someone in finance, or even economics, is that risk is related to return. You can only get higher returns by taking higher risk. True enough. But is it true 'on average': more risk, more return? If not, why not? A recent working paper downloadable at the SSRN, Why Risk is Uncorrelated with Return addresses this issue.

In finance there’s a specific definition of risk relating to the covariance of an asset with some nondiversifiable factor (eg, the market portfolio, a metric of total financial and human capital). Developed in the 1960’s, it’s the crowning achievement of finance, an integration of statistics with utility theory. It’s elegant, relatively simple, and slightly surprising (idiosyncratic risk is not priced). But it’s also empirically vacuous. Even die-hard efficient markets proponents agree that however betas are measured, they don’t generate a nice scatter plot with increasing returns (let alone linear in the factor sensitivity).

The failure of beta for cross-sectional equity pricing is but one example of the failure of the risk-return theory (assumption?). 30-year bonds have the same returns as 3-year bonds on average, in spite of considerably higher volatility, beta, and a negative correlation with inflation. Private investments that are intrinsically undiversified positions due to agency issues—franchises and the like—produce no premium over the S&P500. Recent papers have documented that traditional high risk areas—distressed securities in danger of bankruptcy, high idiosyncratic volatility, or firms with greater earnings forecast dispersion—generate lower returns than average. Corporate bonds show no reward for taking on credit risk (current B-rated yield spreads are below their expected loss and therefore should generate below AAA-rated net returns). Add to that diverse findings, such as that lower variance G-rated movies generate higher returns and less variance than R-rated movies, or that long-shots have the lowest net payout at the racetrack, or that long-shot lotteries are more popular than lower-risk/higher-payout lotteries, and it appears that there is either no correlation with 'risk' as traditionally defined, or a negative one.

This all reminds me of the theory of aether, a substance that supposedly permeated the universe and was consistently found absent. In the late 19th century a good way to academic success was to invent refinements that explained why it couldn't be measured, much like current papers that prove that under certain conditions, there's no beta correlation to return (of course, these then fail in their other implications, such as Roll and Ross's critique that mismeasuring the market generates no return correlation to beta, but as the correlation between idiosyncratic variance and returns is actually negative, this wrecks that angle because idiosyncratic variance should pick up mismeasured factor loadings). To these people, risk is like facial recognition, something common and intuitive yet exceedingly difficult to model abstractly. The Michelson-Morley experiment of our field was Fama-French in 1992, confirming what researchers all knew, and since then everyone accepts the empirical failure of CAPM as the rule, not the exception. Isn't data the ultimate arbiter of theory?

In the paper, my alter-ego explains this as a consequence of people caring about their relative status, rather than absolute wealth. In such an environment, nondiversifiable risk becomes like diversifiable risk in the traditional CAPM, avoidable, so unpriced. All you have to do is assume people care about relative wealth and using arbitrage or utility theory, risk is not related to returns. A beta=0 asset has the same risk as a beta=2 asset to someone benchmarked against the market. The paper presents a simple model, and goes over the empirical evidence with copious references.

There’s actually been quite a few models using a relative status approach for various parochial problems, so it’s not novel in that aspect, it just takes the approach to the general problem of risk and return. And all the general normative implications for volatility retain, including the desire to hedge, or buy insurance (though not, say, Global Warming insurance). There is one big seemingly counterfactual implication: that the equity risk premium is zero. I address this by noting that the equity risk premium used to be estimated at around 8%, and is now generally estimated around 3.5%, so another 3.5% is not farfetched. Further, that estimate ignores transaction costs, and peso-problems in equity indices, which takes this to zero (is the marginal investor the Vanguard500 investor? A high volume/expense day trader? A 5% front-load paying granny?). It should be noted that the traditional model generates only a 0.35% risk premium for plausible parameters, so this isn't as contrary as it seems (any outside-the-box refinement to the traditional model could well be applicable to this one).

Love of power over men (and the implied greater access to women regardless of aggregate wealth) is a base instinct no less petty or universal than greed. Economists should not shirk the implication because as dismal scientists, we draw the line at greed, not envy. It’s not a normative theory, just a positive one (ie, descriptive, not prescriptive). Not only can a relative status utility function explain the absence of the risk aether’s effects in markets, but it can potentially explain other issues, such as the home bias (people are more concerned about their income relative to their countrymen, not the world), endogenous instability (a world where ‘no risk’ is defined as what everyone else is doing has some arbitrariness), and why aggregate happiness is stagnant in countries 5 times as wealthy as 70 years ago (the rat race is unaffected). Rick Harbaugh has a paper where a similar approach generates the utility function of Prospect theory, which is typically just asserted as a funky preference. So there's much to be gained, and only empirical embarrassment to lose (plus all those canned presentation about CAPM given to students).
Paul N (guest) meinte am 18. Oct, 13:48:
I like it. 
HedgeFundGuy antwortete am 19. Oct, 01:39:
I'll take that to the bank, and just ignore all those who note it's not even wrong. 
Irina (guest) meinte am 19. Oct, 07:56:
It's very interesting!
Thanks a lot for such an interesting article!!! Though I'm not highly interested in economics and finance, but it's captures!!! :) I also think that the more you risk, the more you have in return!!!i don't know what the science states, but this fact has been proven many times in every day life!!!! These words whip up to take a risk!!!! ;) 
Teresa (guest) antwortete am 19. Oct, 20:15:
Unfortunately,
comprehension appears to be highly correlated to the reader's ability. 
Teresa (guest) meinte am 20. Oct, 02:40:
A Question from a Reader
One of my readers sent the following via email:

Some thoughts in response to your "Why Risk Is Uncorrelated with Return": In 1996 John Cassidy published an article "The Decline of Economics" on The New Yorker. Cassidy charged the economics had disappeared into an ivory-tower world of hightly idealized theory packed with unrealistic assumptions. Economics had become a "giant academic game" in which scholars wrote papers for each other, showing off their mathematical brilliance, but demonstrating little interest in the relevance of their theories to the real world. This is still quite true for today's academic studies.

The existence of derivative markets such as options and futures markets are for risks control and management. Hedgers have the needs to offset their financial risks, speculators then take on these risks for potential profits. If risks transfers do not accompany with proportional rewards, the financial derivatives markets wouldn't have existed for decades.
For the sake of mathematical tractability, the scholars have tendency to
squeeze the real world into their theoretical models.

Some scholars might not have noticed that higher risk is the neccesary but not sufficient condition for higher return. There are scenarios with high risks which indeed have low probability for high returns. For instances, during this election season and year-end cycle, those mutual fund managers as usual risk some naive investors' 401K money to beat up stock prices. The temporary short-term gain in their funds will allow the managers to pocket the 20% paper profits. In the meantime,from both the fundamental and technical perspectives, there are high risks for chasing the stocks under the over-bought condition.

The probably few percentage points gain of the market does not justify for the unknown but likely significant downward slide. Apparently, the high risks in this situation definitely do not correlate with any high returns at all.

Of course, this is only my 5c view of the issue, would anxiously longing for
your insights. 
HedgeFundGuy antwortete am 20. Oct, 03:24:
Well Teresa, I think this guy has two separate questions/comments. First, academics are somewhat irrelevant to the real world, they get caught up in games of increasing irrelevant and circular cleverness. True, but that has always been the case. It's worse in softer subjects like philosophy.

Secondly, I think it's an important point, put quite well, that "risk is a necessary but not sufficient condition for generating high returns." You are guaranteed average returns if you don't take risk, so Buffet, or Jim Cramer, or anyone successful in building a business (or stock portfolio) took risks. But as the empirical literature points out, there simply isn't any clear metric of 'risk' that is correlated with higher returns, so taking risk isn't sufficient to generate higher returns, merely necessary. I think you need hard work, skill, and luck in business, and these attributes are only needed when one takes risk (ie, if you take no risk, you need no skill, no luck, nor any hard work). 
Teresa (guest) antwortete am 20. Oct, 04:39:
Thanks
for your speedy reply. I will pass it on. 
Douglas Knight (guest) meinte am 20. Oct, 06:07:
I haven't read the paper, but it sounds unnecessary to say that relative utility functions come from status envy, rather than market benchmarks. Market benchmarks come, in turn, from agency problems. That said, I like the last paragraph which suggests other applications where the distinction is relevant. 
bob (guest) meinte am 20. Oct, 10:17:
risk & return
I totally agree that risk is a necessary rather than a sufficient condition for higher returns. However, there is a second point that has to be highlighted: the risk/return paradigm is a forward-looking concept. This is why many financial economists argue that not returns have to be positively correlated with risk, but expected returns with risk! Of course, if with cannot test the link between expected returns and risk if we compare historical returns with historical risk. But there is very strong forward-looking evidence that investors expect higher ruturns if they take on more risk. Example: corporate bonds have higher yields than government bonds because of higher default risk etc. 
michael (guest) meinte am 3. Nov, 22:30:
good paper, wondering what you think about this
Hi HedgeFundGuy...

I found your paper extremely interesting, having been forwarded it by Teresa Lo. I haven't worked through the math in the middle section, so I'll just take your word on that part for now :-) . In the sections on either side, however, you do build a solid case from diverse research sources that the CAPM has little empirical support.

I am curious then, what you think of Ray Dalio's "All Weather" portfolio approach. You probably know who Dalio is, but for those readers who don't, he's the main guy at Bridgewater, a firm that runs many billions, including a bunch in what they dub a "Pure Alpha" hedge fund.

Dalio wrote an interesting paper a while back on Optimal Betas - that is, if you don't try to get the alpha from active management, then how do you diversify amongst beta sources (eg, the "typical" approach being 60% equity, 40% bonds, etc). Dalio has come up with this "All Weather" beta portfolio which, although at first for Dalio's personal family trust, apparently Bridgewater is now running a bunch of money on for others. Here is the link:

http://web.mit.edu/charvak/www/Science/Bridgewater/PandI_PMPT.pdf

Bridgewater's stuff is here: http://www.bwater.com/strategies-research/all-weather/

You will see that in Dalio's framework, he does evaluate assets along a capital market line, but then claims that they are all pretty much the same in terms of historical Sharpe ratio. Let me know your thoughts? 
HedgeFundGuy antwortete am 7. Nov, 04:25:
Interesting guy, sounds like a great company. I'm a little confused about what he's trying to say in his 'engineering Targeted Returns and Risks' article. He seems to say that when you lever things so they all have the same volatility as the S&P (about 20%), they have about the same return. But Venture capital has a volatility of 35%, and a return of 9.5%, while the S&P500 has a return of 9%. I can't get these datapoints to match the "Leveraged Adjusted Expected Excess Returns" he lists below. I don't know what those abbreviations stand for in Chart 1, but they appear to reflect differences in returns between cash, bonds, and stocks. I don't think I'd agree that cash and bond have different expected returns, or I'd like to see his argument.

I agree that optimizing over several betas is a great idea, and that optimizing over alpha is a zero-sum game. But I'm confused about where he says that as opposed to traditional portfolio theory that optimizes over mean and variance, he 'alters the expected risks and returns' of various asset classes (column 2 page 1)? Does he mean the ratio? If so, how? If he's altering the mere size of the risk and return with their proportionality intact, I don't see it as any different than the traditional approach. 
michael (guest) antwortete am 7. Nov, 23:33:
I agree with you, when looking at his charts in detail, it seems like the Venture Capital datapoint isn't translating properly between the two graphs.

I think to build confidence one would have to assemble a bunch of time series of the beta assets and actually try running it themselves (I plan to, eventually :-) )

My reading of what he is doing is transforming each asset (via leverage) into instruments all having the same volatility as the S&P 500, and then building the lowest volatility portfolio possible using combinations of those. But you are right that there is no difference in the optimal portfolio that would result versus traditional finance theory. I mean, you could forget about levering all the aassets initially, and simply build an efficient frontier using the assets as they are. Then simply pick the lowest volatility point on the frontier and lever that up.